KIÊM TRA CUỐI KỲ I LỚP 6 - NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 - MÃ ĐỀ 002

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PHÒNG GD & ĐT THANH OAI
Trường: THCS ___________________ Số phách:
Họ và tên: _______________________
Lớp: 6____

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
MÃ ĐỀ 002

ĐỀ THI CUỐI HỌC KỲ I
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6
                          Năm học: 2023 - 2024           Số phách:

Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề kiểm tra này gồm 03 trang, học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)

A. LISTENING: (1.6 points)
I. Listen and write no more than two words and/or a number in each gap. (4 0.2 = 0.8 pt)
Question 1: It has _______________________ bedrooms.
Question 2: It has a ______________________ pool.
Question 3: It ___________________________ have a garage.
Question 4: There’s a ____________________ in the basement.

II. Listen and choose the best answer for the following questions. (4 0.2 = 0.8 points)
Question 5: Where is New York City? - It’s in the _______ of the USA.
          A. northeast          B. northwest          C. southeast          D. southwest
Question 6: How many main islands does it have?
         A. 3                      B. 4                      C. 5                      D. 6
Question 7: How many people come to visit New York City every year?
         - More than ______ million people.
         A. 50                    B. 15                    C. 60                    D. 16
Question 8: Which of these is New York City famous for?
         A. Big islands       B. Music centers   C. The cold winter D. Tall buildings

B. PHONETICS: (1.0 point)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions: (3 0.2 = 0.6 point)

Question 9:	A. light	B. fridge	C. dinner	D. picture
Question 10:	A. uncles	B. brothers	C. parents	D. fathers
Question 11:	A. poster	B. clock	C. old	D. sofa

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions: (2 0.2 = 0.4 point)

Question 12:	A. teacher	B. doctor	C. happy	D. arrive
Question 13:	A. delicious	B. cinema	C. restaurant	D. beautiful

Học sinh không viết vào đây Học sinh không viết vào đây

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS: (3.0 points)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:
(10 0.2 = 2.0 points)
Question 14: My father………………. chess with his friends at the moment.

A. playing

B. play

C. is playing

D. plays

Question 15: Student A: “What does the new teacher look like?”
Student B: “……………….”.
A. He teaches literature. B. He’s tall and has brown hair.

C. He’s very friendly.

D. He likes playing soccer.

Question 16: Your house is ………………. than my house.

A. beautiful

B. more beautiful

C. beautify

D. more beautifully

Question 17: My aunt ………………. long black hair and an oval face.

A. is having

B. have

C. is

D. has

Question 18: I enjoy ………………. soccer in my free time.

A. playing

B. to playing

C. play

D. plays

Question 19: What ………………. at the moment? – I’m watching TV.

A. do you do

B. are you doing

C. are you do

D. are you does

Question 20: David’s exam results are ………………. than Nick’s.

A. well

B. better

C. good

D. important

Question 21: ………………. go to the museum this weekend! - Good idea!

A. Could you

B. Why don’t

C. How about

D. Let’s

Question 22: There is ………………. orange on the table.

A. any

B. an

C. some

D. the

Question 23: How many students ………………. in your school? - There are 950 students.

A. there are

B. are there

C. there is

D. are these

II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
Question 24: Our classes (finish) …………………………...at 7.30 a.m every day.
Question 25: Your parents (have) …………………………...a new car?
Question 26: This chair (be) …………………………...more comfortable than those chairs.
Question 27: Keep silent! Our teacher (come) …………………………...
Question 28: My brother (not/ go) …………………………...to school on Sundays.

D. READING: (1.2 points)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions: (6 0.2 = 1.2 points)
     This is my friend. Her name is Hoa. She goes to school from Monday to Saturday. Her school is on Quang Trung Street and it is big. It has four floors. Hoa’s classroom is on the second floor. She is in grade 7, class 7A. There are thirty-two pupils in her class.
     Hoa starts her classes at half past one in the afternoon and finishes them at 4:30 p.m. On Monday, she has Maths, Literature and English. After school, Hoa plays badminton, but her friend, Lien doesn’t play it; she plays volleyball. Hoa goes home at 5:30.
Questions:
Question 29: Where is Hoa’s school?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………
Question 30: Does she go to school on Saturday?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………
Question 31: How many floors does her school have?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………
Question 32: Which grade is she in?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………
Question 33: What time does she start her classes in the afternoon?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………
Question 34: Does Lien play badminton?
     -> ………………………………………………………………………………….………

E. WRITING: (1.2 points)
Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
(6 0.2 = 1.2 points)

Question 35: Thuy’s school is bigger than my school.
   -> My school .…………………………............………………………….……….......
Question 36: We usually go to school at six forty-five.
      -> We usually go to school at a …………………………………………….………......
Question 37: Let’s play badminton after school!
-> Why don’t we..………………………............……….………………….………......?
Question 38: My village is behind the stadium.
   -> The stadium …………………..........………………………………….………...
Question 39: Linh likes the kitchen most
    -> Linh’s favourite …………………..........………………………………….……….......
Question 40: We want to eat some sandwiches.
     -> We would like ……………………………………………………….………......

=== The end ===

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