Trung học cơ sở Thanh Thuỳ

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KIỂM TRA HK 2 LỚP 6 (2023-2024

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z5679881199685 2779914655daf862193d596364e6eec9 (1)

 
PHÒNG GD & ĐT THANH OAITrường: THCS ___________________                                               Số phách:
Họ và tên: _______________________
Lớp: 6____
                                                                                             
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
MÃ ĐỀ: 001
 
 
ĐỀ THI CUỐI HỌC KỲ IIMÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6
                             Năm học: 2023 – 2024             Số phách:

Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề kiểm tra này gồm 04 trang, học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)
A. LISTENING: (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False.
Statements True False
Question 1: Tokyo is the largest megacity in the world with 13 million people.    
Question 2: The most beautiful time in Tokyo is in the spring.    
Question 3: Alice should take the subway in Tokyo because it’s safer.    
Question 4: Tokyo National Museum is the oldest museum in the world.    
Question 5: Tokyo National Museum is also one of the most traditional places.    

B. PHONETICS: (1.0 point)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:  (3 0.2 = 0.6 point)
Question 6:  A. weather    B. brother C. cathedral    D. although
Question 7:  A. cheap B. chicken      C. machine D. teacher
Question 8:  A. hear    B. near       C. fear         D. pear
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions:  (2 0.2 = 0.4 points)
Question 9:  A. coffee B. cartoon C. begin    D. police
Question 10:  A. machine B. device C. printer    D. computer

                                                       Học sinh không viết vào đây


      
                                                      Học sinh không viết vào đây

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS: (3.0 points)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:
(100.2 = 2.0 points)
Question 11: You ________________ eat so many sweets. They aren’t good for you.
A. have to            B. need                 C. can                           D. shouldn’t
Question 12: There’s a bus stop very near my house so I get ___________it there to go to school.
A. on                    B. up                    C. down                       D. in
Question 13: The television is in ________________of the table.
A. opposite           B. between            C. behind                     D. front
Question 14: He draws pictures of buildings for builders. He is ______________________.
A. a architect            B. an architect       C. an mechanic             D. a mechanic
Question 15: When crossing the road, we ________________follow the traffic lights.
A. must not           B. have to             C. don’t have to           D. must
Question 16: ____________________is a piece of land with water all around it.
A. An island           B. A bay               C. A waterfall               D. A mountain
Question 17: We won’t go camping ____________we don’t have a tent.
  A. but                   B. because            C. so                               D. although
Question 18: Excuse me, can you show me the way to _________________gas station?
A. a                       B. the                    C. an                            D. x
Question 19: We are really lucky. They _________________a new school next year.
  A. build                 B. built                 C. are building             D. building
Question 20: ______________is special clothing to wear when astronauts work outside in space.
  A. Space station    B. Gravity        C. Spaceship                 D. Spacesuit

II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
Question 21: If he (reuse)___________ reusable bottles, he will save natural materials.
Question 22: In the future, we (have)_____________ robots that will help us take care of our children.
Question 23: We might (go) ________________to the Moon in the future.
Question 24: Anna (move)________________ to Hanoi just two months ago.
Question 25: I (go)_________________to the cinema with my sister this evening.
D. READING: (7 0.2 = 1.4 points)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions:
My Mum Is My Teacher!
My name is Olivia.
It’s 9.30 on Tuesday morning and I’m studying, but I’m not at school that’s because I’m home-educated. All children in Britain between five and eighteen must have an education. This is usually at school, but it can be at home. School is boring for me because the lessons are really easy, so I stay at home and my mum teaches me.
I study the same subjects as students at school, but I can learn at my level. I’m really good at Maths, so I can take my Maths GCSE in May. People take that exam when they are fifteen or sixteen, but I’m only twelve.
I usually study for five hours a day. I don’t wear uniform. There is a computer in my “classroom” and I do a lot of work using DVDs and the internet. I practise the violin every day and I play in an orchestra once a week.
I love learning at home. I don’t have any brothers or sisters, but I’m never lonely. I go to a sport club at the weekends and I have got many friends. Some of them also study at home, so we sometimes chat online.
GCSE: General Certificate of Secondary Education
Questions:
Question 26: Why doesn’t Olivia go to school?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 27: Who teaches Olivia at home?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 28: At what age do students usually take GCSE in Britain?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 29: Why does she think the school is boring?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 30: Does Olivia study the same subjects as students at school?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 31: How many hours a day does she study?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 32: Does Olivia go to a sport club at the weekends?
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………...
E. WRITING: (80.2 = 1.6 points)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
Question 33: I think Chinese is more difficult than English.
→ I think English ………………………………………………………………………..……....
Question 34: The other people in the team are much younger than Alice.
→ Alice is …………………………………………………………………..…….....................
Question 35: Don’t talk during the exam!
→ You mustn’t …………………………………………………………………………..……...
Question 36: How about going to the cinema tonight?
Shall …………………………………………………………………………………….......

II. Re- order the words to make meaningful sentences:

Question 37: at the age of 7. / could/ do sums/ Mary/
-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………...
Question 38: rainy. / We / go / if / is / swimming / it / tomorrow / will / not/ together
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 39: you/ are/ What/ going to do / this weekend?
-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………......  Question 40: everybody/ I think/ easier/ much/ for/ life/ in/ be/ will/ the future.
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………..……...

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