KT GIỮA KỲ I- LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

 

PHÒNG GD & ĐT THANH OAI TRƯỜNG THCS THANH THÙY

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024      Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

                                   (Đề kiểm tra này gồm 04 trang, học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề)

I. LISTENING (2.0 points)
Complete the dialogue below with ONE WORD in each gap. Listen and check.
(4 0.2 = 0.8 point)
Kim: Can I have two  (1) …………………… for The Jungle Book, please?
Tu: Which screening
Kim: The 8.15 screening.
Tu: Here you are. Two tickets in (2) …………………… five
Kim: How (3) …………………… is that?
Tu: That’s 140,000VND, please.
Kim: (4) …………………… you are.
Tu: Thank you. Enjoy the movie!

Choose the best answer for the following questions. (6 0.2 = 1.2 points)
Question 5.  Kim wants to……………………
     A. see a movie           B. go shopping               C. play sports
Question 6. Kim wants to buy tickets for the film……………………
     A. Zoo World            B. The Jungle Book        C. Toy Sore 6                
Question 7. The film starts at ……………………
     A. 8.15                      B. 8.45                           C. 8.5                   
Question 8. Two tickets in row……………………
     A. nine                      B. ten                             C. five                  
Question 9. Each ticket is …………………… .
    A. 140,000VND          B. 70,000VND               C. 40,000VND
Question 10. Tu tells Kim to …………………… the movie.
    A. enjoy                      B. watch                         C. turn off
         
B. PHONETICS (1.0 pt)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:  (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)

Question 11:	A. soap opera	B. tracksuit	C. sauce	D. sugar
Question 12:	A. touch	B. stomach	C. catch	D. cheerful
Question 13:	A. books	B. stops	C. hats	D. pens

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the possition of stress in each of the following questions:  (2 0.2 = 0.4 point)

Question 14:	A. tracksuit	B. woolly	C. relax	D. tidy
Question 15:	A. review	B. helpful	C. necklace	D. quiet

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS (3.0 pts)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:
                                                          (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)
Question 16: ……………………  do you play soccer?  - Every weekend.              
   A. How many              B. How long                   C. How often                D. How much
Question 17: How many months are there ……………………  a year?  - There are 12 months.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. to

Question 18: My brothers ……………………  video games at the moment.

A. play

B. playing

C. are playing

D. to play

Question 19: ……………………  class is Minh in?         - She's in class 7A3.

A. Who

B. Where

C. How

D. Which

Question 20: I and my close friends always ……………………  to class on time.

A. comes

B. coming

C. come

D. to come

Question 21: I never ……………………  my homework before dinner.

A. do

B. does

C. doing

D. to do

Question 22: We ……………………  games in our English class.

A. often plays

B. often play

C. play often

D. plays often

Question 23: What ……………………  at present?

A. are you do

B. are you doing

C. do you do

D. do you doing

 Question 24: Giap is interested ……………………  eating chicken.

A. to

B. of

C. in

D. from

Question  25: ……………………  your brother ……………………  next to the beautiful girl
 over there now?

A. Sit

B. Does … sit

C. Is … siting

D. Is … sitting

II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets:  (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
Question 26. The weather (be) ……..............…. often warm in Spring in Viet Nam.
Question 27. I like (do) ……..............…. the gardening in my free time.
Question 28. What (you/ watch) ……..............…. on TV at present?
Question 29. My brother (be) ……..............…. the most handsome in our village.
Question 30: All of us can (do) ……..............…. this test easily.
D. READING: (2.0 pts)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions: (5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
    Vietnamese students usually take part in different after-school activities. Some students play sports. They often play soccer, tennis or badminton. Sometimes, they go swimming in the swimming pools. Some students like music, drama and movies. They often practice playing musical instruments in the school music room. They join in the school theater group and usually rehearse plays. Some are members of the stamp collector’s club. They often get together and talk about their stamps. A few students stay at home and play video games or computer games. Most of them enjoy their activities after school hours.
Question 31. Which sports do some students often play?
-> ……………….....………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 32. How often do they go swimming?
-> ……………….....………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 33. Where do some students often practice playing musical instruments?
-> ……………….....………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 34. What do the members of the stamp collector’s club often do?
-> ……………….....………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 35. Do most of Vietnamese students enjoy their activities?
-> ……………….....………………………………………………….……………………….

E. READING: (2.0 pts)
 Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
(5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
Question 36: What is your daughter’s age, Mrs. Mai?
          -> How……………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 37: Lan doesn't go to school because of her sickness.
          -> Because Lan…………………………………………………………………………….
Question 38: I like chicken.
          -> My favorite food.……………………………………………………………………….
Question 39: My mother likes listening to classical music.
          -> My mother is interested ………………………………………………………………..
Question 40: Both men and women love wearing jeans.
          -> Both men and women are ……………………………………………………………...

--- The end ---


 

PHÒNG GD & ĐT HUYỆN THANH OAI TRƯỜNG THCS THANH THÙY

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024

I. LISTENING (2.0 points)
Complete the dialogue below with ONE WORD in each gap. Listen and check.
(4 0.2 = 0.8 point)

1	2	3	4
tickets	row	much	Here

Choose the best answer for the following questions. (6 0.2 = 1.2 points)

5	6	7	8	9	10
A	B	A	C	B	A

B. PHONETICS (1.0 pt)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions:  (3 0.2 = 0.6 point)

Question 11:				D. sugar
Question 12:		B. stomach
Question 13:				D. pens

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the possition of stress in each of the following questions:  (2 0.2 = 0.4 point)

Question 14:			C. relax
Question 15:	A. review

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS (3.0 pts)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to each of the questions:   
                             (10 0.2 = 2.0 points)

Question 16: C	Question 17: A	Question 18: C	Question 19: D	Question 20: C
Question 21: A	Question 22: B	Question 23: B	Question 24: C	Question 25: D

II. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets:  (5 0.2 = 1.0 point)
Question 26. is                         Question 27. doing          Question 28. are you watching          
Question 29. Is                         Question 30. Do

D. READING: (2.0 pts)
Read the passage, then answer the following questions: (5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
          Question 31. They often play soccer, tennis or badminton.
Question 32. They sometimes go swimming.
Question 33. They often practice playing musical instruments in the school music room.
Question 34. They often get together and talk about their stamps.
Question 35. Yes, they do.

E. READING: (2.0 pts)
 Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one:
(5 0.4 = 2.0 points)
Question 36. How old is your daughter, Mrs. Mai?
Question 37. Because Lan is sick, she doesn't go to school.
Question 38. My favorite food is chicken.
Question 39. My mother is interested in listening to classical music.
Question 40. Both men and women are interested in wearing jeans.
--- The end ---